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Old 11-02-2003, 11:32 PM   #1 (permalink)
Dragon
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Default Anit-e question, suicidal vs. non-suicidal?

I know Aromasin is suicidal and permanatly binds to aromatase enzyme, then it is excreted.

How long does it take for the body (Avarage) to reproduce the aromatase enzymes to the level's the were before aromasin??

Am I correct instating that the aromatase enzyme is only temporarily "tie up" by femara and armidex?

So, since femara has been accused of causing the body to produce more aromatase, would it not be wise to may be switch to aromasin after discontinuing femara, or armidex?

May be even just low dose combo's of them. SayI was at a 1 gram of test and 2.5mg of femara eod was enough to control sides to suit my need. Then maybe 1.25mg femara eod with 12.5mg aromasin on eod would be better? How does that sound?

In theroy, That would eliminate the excess aromatse that is made by the body. So no build up would be caused, hence, never having an estrogen rebound. Make sense?

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Old 11-04-2003, 04:15 PM   #2 (permalink)
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Any one have any thoughts?

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Old 11-09-2003, 01:34 PM   #3 (permalink)
archive_METHYL MIKE
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Um i dont think ive heard of femara causing an increase in aromatase production, i thought it was an aromatase blocker just like arimidex? It wouldnt make sense that it increases it, but if it did, i guess when you are about to stop taking it, yes taking some aromasin for 2 weeks or so might be a good idea, or arimidex, which im sure doesnt increase aromatase. Could somebody verify that femara increases aromatase? That just doesnt sound right. Oh and arimidex doesnt "tie up" aromatase, it hits your liver and prevents it from being produced in the first place. The only real difference from arimidex to aromasin is that aromasin cant be displaced from its receptors, as it is suicidal, but arimidex can. Hope that helps.

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